Question and Answers
Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing (VAPT)
Question 1:
What does VAPT stand for in the context of cybersecurity?
a) Virtual Analysis and Penetration Techniques b) Vulnerability Analysis and Penetration Testing c) Visual Assessment and Precautionary Tactics d) Validating Assets and Penetrating Threats
Answer 1:
b) Vulnerability Analysis and Penetration Testing
Question 2:
Which of the following is the primary objective of VAPT?
a) Identifying and remediating vulnerabilities in a system b) Protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access c) Developing new security tools and technologies d) Monitoring network traffic for potential threats
Answer 2:
a) Identifying and remediating vulnerabilities in a system
Question 3:
What is the difference between vulnerability assessment and penetration testing?
a) Vulnerability assessment involves exploiting vulnerabilities, while penetration testing does not. b) Penetration testing is automated, while vulnerability assessment is manual. c) Vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses, while penetration testing simulates attacks. d) Vulnerability assessment is only performed on web applications, while penetration testing is for networks.
Answer 3:
c) Vulnerability assessment identifies weaknesses, while penetration testing simulates attacks.
Question 4:
Which phase of VAPT involves gathering information about the target system, such as IP addresses and domain names?
a) Exploitation b) Enumeration c) Scanning d) Reconnaissance
Answer 4:
d) Reconnaissance
Question 5:
When conducting a penetration test, what is the correct sequence of actions typically followed?
a) Reconnaissance, Scanning, Exploitation, Post-Exploitation b) Scanning, Reconnaissance, Exploitation, Post-Exploitation c) Exploitation, Scanning, Reconnaissance, Post-Exploitation d) Post-Exploitation, Exploitation, Scanning, Reconnaissance
Answer 5:
a) Reconnaissance, Scanning, Exploitation, Post-Exploitation
Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT a common penetration testing methodology?
a) OWASP Testing Guide b) NIST Cybersecurity Framework c) Penetration Testing Execution Standard (PTES) d) Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual (OSSTMM)
Answer 6:
b) NIST Cybersecurity Framework
Question 7:
During a penetration test, what does the term "privilege escalation" refer to?
a) Gaining unauthorized access to sensitive data b) Elevating user privileges to gain administrative access c) Cracking encrypted passwords d) Denying service to legitimate users
Answer 7:
b) Elevating user privileges to gain administrative access
Question 8:
What is the primary purpose of the report generated after a VAPT engagement?
a) To provide a detailed analysis of the target system's architecture b) To justify the cost of the VAPT engagement to the client c) To impress the client with technical jargon and complex language d) To present findings, vulnerabilities, and recommended remediation actions
Answer 8:
d) To present findings, vulnerabilities, and recommended remediation actions
Question 9:
Which of the following statements is true about bug bounty programs?
a) Bug bounty programs are only offered by government agencies. b) Bug bounty programs are illegal and considered hacking. c) Bug bounty programs reward individuals for responsibly disclosing security vulnerabilities. d) Bug bounty programs are exclusively focused on network security.
Answer 9:
c) Bug bounty programs reward individuals for responsibly disclosing security vulnerabilities.
Question 10:
What is the main motivation for organizations to run bug bounty programs?
a) To find vulnerabilities in their competitors' systems b) To promote illegal hacking activities c) To improve their cybersecurity by incentivizing external researchers d) To replace internal security teams with external researchers
Answer 10:
c) To improve their cybersecurity by incentivizing external researchers
Bug Bounty Programs
Question 11:
Which tech giant is known for running one of the most popular bug bounty programs?
a) Microsoft b) Apple c) Amazon d) Google
Answer 11:
d) Google
Question 12:
What is the main difference between public and private bug bounty programs?
a) Public programs have more security vulnerabilities to discover. b) Private programs are only open to internal employees. c) Public programs offer higher rewards to researchers. d) Private programs are invitation-only and not open to the public.
Answer 12:
d) Private programs are invitation-only and not open to the public.
Question 13:
Which of the following is NOT typically considered a valid vulnerability for bug bounty programs?
a) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) b) Remote Code Execution (RCE) c) Brute-Force Attacks d) SQL Injection (SQLi)
Answer 13:
c) Brute-Force Attacks
Question 14:
What role does a bug bounty platform play in these programs?
a) It manages and conducts the penetration testing process. b) It acts as a mediator between the organization and the researchers. c) It automatically fixes reported vulnerabilities. d) It exclusively focuses on finding zero-day vulnerabilities.
Answer 14:
b) It acts as a mediator between the organization and the researchers.
Question 15:
What is the "Hall of Fame" in the context of bug bounty programs?
a) A section of the bug bounty platform that lists the most valuable vulnerabilities found. b) An award given to the researcher with the most vulnerability reports. c) A competition where researchers compete against each other to find bugs. d) A ceremony held annually to celebrate successful bug bounty programs.
Answer 15:
a) A section of the bug bounty platform that lists the most valuable vulnerabilities found.
Question 16:
What is the responsible disclosure principle in bug bounty programs?
a) Researchers must disclose vulnerabilities to the public before notifying the organization. b) Researchers should only report vulnerabilities to the media for maximum impact. c) Researchers should report vulnerabilities to the organization without disclosing them to the public. d) Researchers can sell the discovered vulnerabilities to the highest bidder.
Answer 16:
c) Researchers should report vulnerabilities to the organization without disclosing them to the public.
Question 17:
What is the main goal of a security researcher participating in bug bounty programs?
a) To gain unauthorized access to the organization's systems. b) To cause disruption and damage to the organization's infrastructure. c) To earn monetary rewards for responsibly disclosing security vulnerabilities. d) To compete with other researchers and become the top bug bounty hunter.
Answer 17:
c) To earn monetary rewards for responsibly disclosing security vulnerabilities.
Question 18:
Which of the following is a famous example of a critical bug discovered through a bug bounty program?
a) Heartbleed vulnerability in OpenSSL b) WannaCry ransomware attack c) Stuxnet worm targeting SCADA systems d) NotPetya malware outbreak
Answer 18:
a) Heartbleed vulnerability in OpenSSL
Question 19:
What is the "Payout Cap" in bug bounty programs?
a) The maximum number of bug reports a researcher can submit in a year. b) The highest reward amount a researcher can receive for a single vulnerability. c) The time limit set for researchers to find and report bugs. d) The minimum threshold of bugs that must be reported before researchers receive rewards.
Answer 19:
b) The highest reward amount a researcher can receive for a single vulnerability.
Question 20:
Which term is commonly used to describe the process of fixing reported vulnerabilities?
a) Patching b) Fuzzing c) Bricking d) Rooting
Answer 20:
a) Patching
Network Security
Question 21:
Which of the following network security measures is used to control and monitor the flow of incoming and outgoing network traffic?
a) Firewall b) Antivirus c) Encryption d) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer 21:
a) Firewall
Question 22:
What is the purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN) in network security?
a) To protect against viruses and malware. b) To prevent unauthorized access to physical network devices. c) To provide secure and encrypted communication over public networks. d) To block malicious websites and content.
Answer 22:
c) To provide secure and encrypted communication over public networks.
Question 23:
Which of the following statements about Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks is true?
a) DDoS attacks are always carried out by a single attacker using multiple systems. b) DDoS attacks aim to steal sensitive information from a targeted network. c) DDoS attacks overwhelm a network by flooding it with a massive amount of legitimate traffic. d) DDoS attacks can only be prevented by installing additional hardware.
Answer 23:
c) DDoS attacks overwhelm a network by flooding it with a massive amount of legitimate traffic.
Question 24:
Which network security concept involves hiding internal IP addresses from external networks?
a) Network Address Translation (NAT) b) Virtual LAN (VLAN) c) Quality of Service (QoS) d) Port Forwarding
Answer 24:
a) Network Address Translation (NAT)
Question 25:
What does the term "phishing" refer to in the context of network security?
a) Gaining unauthorized access to a network by exploiting software vulnerabilities. b) Sending deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information. c) Scanning a network to identify security vulnerabilities. d) Intercepting and decoding encrypted network traffic.
Answer 25:
b) Sending deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information.
Question 26:
Which security protocol is commonly used to secure network communication over the internet?
a) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) b) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) c) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer 26:
a) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Question 27:
What is the purpose of network segmentation in network security?
a) To isolate infected devices and prevent them from spreading malware. b) To reduce network latency and improve performance. c) To limit the number of users accessing the network simultaneously. d) To ensure all devices on the network use the same IP address range.
Answer 27:
a) To isolate infected devices and prevent them from spreading malware.
Question 28:
Which of the following is NOT a common wireless network security measure?
a) WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) b) MAC filtering (Media Access Control) c) SSID hiding (Service Set Identifier) d) Packet sniffing
Answer 28:
d) Packet sniffing
Question 29:
What is the primary purpose of an intrusion detection system (IDS) in network security?
a) To prevent unauthorized access to a network. b) To encrypt data transmitted over the network. c) To detect and respond to suspicious activities or security breaches. d) To filter out malicious websites and content.
Answer 29:
c) To detect and respond to suspicious activities or security breaches.
Question 30:
What does the term "zero-day vulnerability" mean in the context of network security?
a) A vulnerability that has been known for zero days and doesn't exist. b) A vulnerability that has never been exploited in the wild. c) A vulnerability that was discovered today and has not yet been patched. d) A vulnerability that affects zero devices on the network.
Answer 30:
c) A vulnerability that was discovered today and has not yet been patched.